ROFL, justice had been delivered.actually, thats my comment, cant you tell
Is he really claiming a non-zero values for y/0?If x/0=y, then y*0=x, so multiplying any number with 0 will yield a result having non zero value, also since this is true, 0 must have a sign, so -0 or +0? More I think, more my head hurts.
Ofcourse, if you divide a number by another number (both non zero) you get a non zero value, if he proves dividing something by zero is infinity or any other abstract symbol he made up that would be crazy.Is he really claiming a non-zero values for y/0?
Umm, lets see, A PRINTING PRESS?He might be able to tell the exact value of pi also!!!!!!
BTW ho he got those certificates he's backing his formula with?????
well 0.00...01 I meant that the there are infinite 0s between integer 0 and the decimal 1.In fact 0.9R = 1 (try converting 0.9R into fraction)
And a 0.0000...1 isn't a number anyway (we're not talking of limits).
Weird "formula". BS IMO.
EDIT: He is not talking in terms of repetends though,,it won't be 0.9R
He just has to prove, 1/Y' + 1/Y'' = 2/Y. Has he actually done that? And how does this "new" formula help in solving problems, I wonder.
Nope. Taking out pictures is easier and cheaper as well, if you are so inclined.
well 1.00...01 I meant that the there are infinite 0s between integer 1 and the decimal 1.
Your fundamentals are weak. When infinity comes into the picture it consumes or absorbs i.e infinite+infinte=infinite, infinite-infinite=infiniteMHG said:Lemme give an example (for infinity based operations):
Lets summate X from 1 to infinity. The result is infinity but lets call it i0.
Lets summate X from 5 to infinity. The result is infinity but lets call it i1.
Now perform operation 5/i0
The result is ZERO because you are dividing a finite number by infinity.
Now perform operation 5/i1
The result is still ZERO because you are dividing a finite number by infinity.
Now perform operation 5/(i0 - i1)
The result is 0.5 (and not infinity), because i0 - i1 = 1+2+3+4 = 10, which we know because of the way the numbers i0 and i1 originated.
If you can visualize the infinite, then you are actually limiting it.
lol back then didn't have an electric... should update pic with my electric I guess@Gautham, well explained
Off topic: Your name says MetalHead, yet you have and acoustic guitar in your avatar?
Your fundamentals are weak. When infinity comes into the picture it consumes or absorbs i.e infinite+infinte=infinite, infinite-infinite=infinite
(Note : Same is observed at the speed of light). Thus, "operation 5/(i0 - i1)" is also zero! Similarly, Universe is inifnite. Can you take infinite out of it? If you can visualize the infinite, then you are actually limiting it. Your logic, "i0-i1=10" tells that you are treating infinite as some finite.
Anyways, an interesting book for this kind of topic would be "the Tao of Physics" by Fritjof Capra
PS : I wish Indians maintain the same spirit of questioning and enquiry that they showed for "Mystery of Zero by Ankur" when it comes to reading books written by westerners.
That integration is still finite, but you cannot use the above example when you are integrating to infinity, at least that's what I think.lol back then didn't have an electric... should update pic with my electric I guess
(yeah my fundamentals ARE a bit weak that's why I struggled through maths) but i0-i1 = 10 still stands. I mean think of it as integration (damn I wish bbcode had math fonts).
(Integral a to b) = (integral a to J) + (integral J to b) where J is a number between a and b and the integral is continuous in the interval )a,b) which is a law of integration.
Above relation also gives:
(integral a to J) = (integral a to b) - (integral J to b)
Now in my example replace integration with simple summation, a with 0 and b with infinity and J with 5.
PS: crap man you are forcing me to touch (@1(U1U5 again... h8ed it....
Stole my words. Completely Agree!
There are many things in the world, that are impossible to visualize. Infinity is one of them.
That integration is still finite, but you cannot use the above example when you are integrating to infinity, at least that's what I think.
Going by your example lets say after infinite years you want to know their age difference, you do not know their age difference from start, neither do they(forgot), now can you calculate it? As far you and them are concerned both of them had lived for an eternity and you don't know how 'old' they exactly are, so you can no differentiate them.woops didn't see this before...
Well you can't visualize infinity completely. But using a generating function for infinity it IS possible (kinda) to see how it grows. For example, an exponential graph (y = e^x) curves upwards. We don't know where it ends or how far it curves. But we KNOW it curves. Same way (y=x) graph is a straight line cutting origin and at 45 degrees to both X and Y axis. We cannot visualize how far it goes but we know its shape.
Anyway, my point was not about visualizing infinity in the first place. All I did was refuse to simplify some terms till they're in a state where it becomes inevitable.
OK here's a way to understand it:
Imagine a planet where people have infinite lives (or imagine you're a vampire from twilight ).
There is alien/vampire X born in 1675 and alien/vampire Y born in 1680. No matter what year you take (even near infinity) they have an age difference of 5 years always
Well... Lets wait for more replies then. I'm sure there are plenty of math pros in this forum.